we have
[tex]f(x)=\frac{1}{4}x-1[/tex]
[tex]g(x)=\frac{1}{2}x-2[/tex]
we know that
the slope of f(x) is [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]
the slope of g(x) is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{2} > \frac{1}{4}[/tex]
so
g(x) is steeper than f(x)
the y-intercept of f(x) is [tex]-1[/tex]
the y-intercept of g(x) is [tex]-2[/tex]
[tex]-2 < -1[/tex]
so
g(x) has a lower y-intercept
therefore
the answer is
The line of g(x) is steeper and has a lower y-intercept
