Answer:
Probability at least one car will get punctured: 0.39347
Step-by-step explanation:
B(10,000 , 0.00005)
P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)
= 1 - (1 - 0.00005)^10,000
= 1 - (0.99995)^10,000
= 1 - 0.60652...
= 0.39347 (probability that at least one car will get punctured)
As you can tell P(X ≥ 1) as we have to solve for the probability that at least one car will get punctured. That is of course 1 - [ P(X = 0) ].
How do we know to use a binomial distribution here? Based on these three reasons:
