This problem may seem confusing and tricky at first, but it is surprisingly straightforward
[tex]\dfrac{m}{n}=2[/tex]
First, let's take the inverse of both sides (flip fractions and/or put a number under a "1")
[tex]\dfrac{n}{m}=\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]
Multiply both sides by 6 (multiply 6 to both numerators)
[tex]\dfrac{6n}{m}=\dfrac{6}{2}[/tex]
Divide both sides by 2 (multiply 2 to both denominators)
[tex]\dfrac{6n}{2m}=\dfrac{6}{4}[/tex]
Simplify the fraction on the right
[tex]\dfrac{6n}{2m}=\dfrac{3}{2}[/tex]
Your answer is 3/2. Let me know if you need any clarifications, thanks!
~ Padoru
