Answer:
A) 6,157.18
B ) 18,611.55
C) 59,501.22
Explanation:
we solve for the annuity which generates a future value of 1,000,000 in 40 years at 11.4%
[tex]FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = C\\[/tex]
FV 4,000,000
time 40
rate 0.114
[tex]4000000 \div \frac{(1+0.114)^{40} -1}{0.114} = C\\[/tex]
C $ 6,157.183
if time is 30 years:
[tex]FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = C\\[/tex]
FV 4,000,000
time 30
rate 0.114
[tex]4000000 \div \frac{(1+0.114)^{30} -1}{0.114} = C\\[/tex]
C $ 18,611.552
if time is 20 years:
[tex]FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = C\\[/tex]
FV 4,000,000
time 20
rate 0.114
[tex]4000000 \div \frac{(1+0.114)^{20} -1}{0.114} = C\\[/tex]
C $ 59,501.222