Answer:
False
Step-by-step explanation:
According to the description of the function y = f(x) from the point (-1,1) it goes up and right becoming more steep, sharply changes direction at (0,2), goes horizontally right, and ends at the open point (2,2).
In this part we can assume that the point (0,2) belongs to f(x). Actually, we can say that when x=0, f(x)=2. And this is important because of the limit of f(x) when it approaches to 0 from the left (0-) or the right (0+).
Since the point (0,2) is the end of the road from the point (-1,1) we can say the limit when x approaches to zero, from the left, is 2.
[tex]\lim_{x \to 0^{-} } f(x)=2[/tex]
And since the same point (0,2) is the beginning of the road for when it goes horizontally right to the (2,2) point we can say that the limit when x approaches to zero, from the right, is 2.
[tex]\lim_{x \to 0^{+} } f(x)=2[/tex]
So the limit when x approaches to zero is 2, not 1 therefore the statement is false.
And we can write:
[tex]\lim_{x \to 0^{-} } f(x)=\lim_{x \to 0^{+} } f(x)=2[/tex]