Anyone.... Are being from California and preferring brand B independent events? Why or why not?

The reason I believe they are not independent events is because people in California may be used to eating a certain flavor pallet in their area, whereas Texas may have different general flavors in their area. Now as far as the numbers, I am not entirely sure, I am assuming you know since your question was just asking if they were independent or not. However, if it is percent, it does seem like A makes the most sense in relation to the totals. Also you can use deductive reasoning. Most often when there are answer choices, there is one correct answer choice, and the others have all the same aspects, but only 1 thing is changed. Since this is generally the case, you can take similarities between answer choices as parts that are correct, and the little variances which are only in one answer as modifications from the correct answer. For instance in this question, there is 1 that says yes, and 2 that say no. Because of this, I assume that it must be no since yes must be that one modification that makes that answer choice incorrect. Now its A or B. I look at all the answer choices and see that B is the only one that says California brand B is .36 whereas the other two say .55. From this I assume that .36 is the variance that makes it incorrect, leaving me with A as my answer.

psm22415 psm22415 · Answer 2 · 2022-06-12T02:40:12+02:00

Yes, they are independent because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.

What are independent events?

The literal meaning of Independent Events is the events which occur freely of each other.

A taste test asks people from Texas and California which pasta they prefer, brand A or brand B.

A person is randomly selected from those tested.

And we have find that are being from Texas and preferring brand A independent events or not.

Firstly, we know that these two events will be independent when;

[tex]\rm P(Texas) = P(Texas/brand A)\\\\ P(Texas) = \dfrac{Number \ of \ people \ for \ texas}{Total \ number \ of \ people \ taxes}\\\\ P(Texas) = \dfrac{125}{275}\\\\ P(Texas) = 0.45[/tex]

[tex]\rm And \ P(Texas/brand A) = \dfrac{P(Taxes \cap Brand \ A }{P (Brand \ A)}\\\\ P(Texas/brand A) = \dfrac{80}{176}\\\\ P(Texas/brand A) = 0.45[/tex]

Hence, being from Texas and preferring brand A are independent events because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.

Learn more about independent events here;

https://brainly.com/question/16465754

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