A 62-year-old woman with diabetes and hypertension is evaluated for incontinence. She is found to have a cystocele and grade 3 uterine prolapse. Her diabetes and hypertension are both poorly controlled. On examination, the uterus can be repositioned with firm digital pressure. In addition to being declared unfit for surgery, she is not keen on undergoing any procedure. She has no history of any urinary infections or pelvic inflammatory disease.

What is the next step in management?
a. Discuss non-surgical options such as pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, and behavioral techniques for managing incontinence and prolapse symptoms.
b. Optimize her control of diabetes and hypertension to reduce the risk of complications associated with surgery or any other procedures.
c. Refer her to a specialist for further evaluation and management options, including the possibility of medical management of her incontinence and prolapse.
d. Educate her about the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options and involve her in shared decision-making regarding her care plan.