A 76-year-old African American man with a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is referred to a urologist for the evaluation of supranormal PSA readings associated with a reduction in urinary stream, back and hip pain, hematuria, and weight loss. He has not yet been managed for these symptoms. A pelvic X-ray done in office reveals osteoblastic sclerotic areas of pelvis and femurs bilaterally.

What is the most appropriate pharmacotherapeutic agent for this patient?
a. Bisphosphonates
b. Androgen deprivation therapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Immunotherapy