A 20-year-old male with a history of nephrotic syndrome is seen in clinic after a renal biopsy. He presented a week ago with anasarca and loamy urine without hematuria. His blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Examination reveals periorbital edema, with clear lungs, a normal cardiac examination and 4 + edema and anasarca. His 24-hour urine contains 8 grams of protein and his serum creatinine, is 0.8 mg /dL. His urinalysis show 4 + protein, but no red cells or casts. His renal biopsy is read as minimal change disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management ?
a. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
b. Refer for kidney transplant evaluation
c. Start angiotens neurin inhibitor (e.g. ACE inhibitor or ARB) therapy
d. Schedule a follow-up renal biopsy in 3 months