M.L. is a 14-year-old male adolescent (weight 82 kg) who presents to the clinic today with right lower leg pain and swelling for the past week and new onset of fever and malaise during the past 3 days. He has had a difficult time walking during the past 2 days. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness of the affected area secondary to the pain. The patient has no significant past medical problems but does recall falling while playing basketball 7 days ago. Laboratory results show the following: WBC 18 × 103 cells/mm3 (65% segs, 10% bands, 28% lymphs, 2% monos), ESR 52 mm/hour, and CRP 12.7 mg/dL. An MRI reveals soft tissue swelling of the right tibia and periosteum suggestive of osteomyelitis. M.L. is to be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotic treatment.
On day 2 of hospitalization, a blood culture comes back positive for MSSA. The patient is hospitalized for 7 days to receive intravenous antibiotics. Which would be most appropriate for oral therapy, which will continue for another 3-4 weeks?
a. No appropriate oral agent for the organism.
b. Cephalexin 500 mg orally every 6 hours.
c. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily.
d. Linezolid 600 mg orally twice daily.