If f(x) = 0 (mod p) has exactly j solutions with p as a prime and g(x) = 0 (mod p) has no solution, what does f(x) * g(x) = 0 (mod p) imply?
a) f(x) * g(x) has exactly j solutions.
b) f(x) * g(x) has no solution.
c) f(x) * g(x) has j+1 solutions.
d) f(x) * g(x) has j-1 solutions.