Scenario 1: John's great-great-grandfather made a fortune in the U.S. slave trade. That fortune was invested carefully, and it continued to grow as it passed from John's great-grandfather to his grandfather to his father and now to John. John now has great wealth, which is the result of careful investments of several generations of his family, but the original investment capital came from trading in slaves.

Scenario 2: During World War II the Nazi's stole priceless works of art. The owners of this art were often deported and exterminated in concentration camps. A grandson of the Nazi now has possession of the art.

In each of the two scenarios above, is the wealth legitimate?

If one of them is legitimate and the other not, why?

If both are legitimate, why?

If neither is legitimate, why and how would you remedy the current situation?