Which of the following causes of the sub-prime mortgage meltdown is NOT stated accurately?
A-Home buyers purchased homes they could not afford with "option ARM" loans, expecting that they could resell or refinance the loans before the monthly payment amount adjusted upward.
B-Mortgage brokers didn't care if home buyers defaulted eventually, because they did not retain a vested interest in the loans they originated.
C-Real estate appraisers were lax, because they assumed home values would continue to go up.
D-Regulators approved sub-prime standards.
E-Investors frequently purchased a type of insurance policy on a mortgage-backed security called a debit no-fault swap, which wasn't really insurance.